vangelis angelakos
2007-02-20 10:53:08 UTC
Hello,
I am working on a PPP paper and during the last couple of days I've been
reading
RFC 1661, and I have a question on a 'strange' complexity on Magic-Number
description. Specificaly, on page 46, par. 3 the RFC states:
"...If an implementation does receive a Configure-Reject in
response to a Configure-Request, it can only mean that the link is
not looped-back, and that its peer will not be using Magic-
Numbers. In this case, an implementation SHOULD act as if the
negotiation had been successful (as if it had instead received a
Configure-Ack)..."
Does anyone has a better idea on the reason of introducing such
an 'overload' for Conf-Rej? If peer Rejects Magic number option
why SHOULD the implementation act as if the negotiation was
successful (a.k.a will send Echo Requests with it's (rejected) magic
number)?
Thank you,
vangelis
I am working on a PPP paper and during the last couple of days I've been
reading
RFC 1661, and I have a question on a 'strange' complexity on Magic-Number
description. Specificaly, on page 46, par. 3 the RFC states:
"...If an implementation does receive a Configure-Reject in
response to a Configure-Request, it can only mean that the link is
not looped-back, and that its peer will not be using Magic-
Numbers. In this case, an implementation SHOULD act as if the
negotiation had been successful (as if it had instead received a
Configure-Ack)..."
Does anyone has a better idea on the reason of introducing such
an 'overload' for Conf-Rej? If peer Rejects Magic number option
why SHOULD the implementation act as if the negotiation was
successful (a.k.a will send Echo Requests with it's (rejected) magic
number)?
Thank you,
vangelis